PD1-001 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1. Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

2. An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

3. The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine. Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

5. Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate PD1-001 any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

6. Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

7. How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

8. When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

9. A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

10. A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

11. In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

12. During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

13. Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

14. The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

15. A customer is concerned about PD1-001 dumps excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

16. The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

17. Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

18. Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

19. Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed PD1-001 study guide in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

20. A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

N10-004 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1. In the OSI model, which of the following layers would be the cause of a session timeout
while browsing the web?
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 5
D.Layer 7
Answer: C

2. Which of the following N10-004 study guide network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer: B

3. Which of the following does a star ring topology use for data transfer?
A.CSMA/CD
B.CSMA/CA
C.CHAP
D.Token passing
Answer: D

4. On a Windows network, users are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The users can ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The file server is offline.
B.The DNS server is not resolving correctly.
C.The DHCP server is not assigning correct IP addresses.
D.The domain controller is not responding.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is a valid IP address in the public addressing scheme?
A.10.20.1.1
B.168.192.10.1
C.233.10.20.1
D.172.20.10.1
Answer: B

6. A computer configured to use N10-004 dumps DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server. Automatic Private IP Address
(APIPA) will assign which of the following addresses?
A.172.16.1.25
B.169.254.1.25
C.10.16.1.25
D.192.168.1.25
Answer: B

7. A user reports that when the phone rings in their house the wireless on their laptops becomes
disconnected. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
A.The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router
B.The cordless phones are 5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless
C.The cordless phones are 2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless
D.The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ11 jack
Answer: C

8. For an enterprise to use one of the reserved private IP address ranges, as best practice they should coordinate with:
A.their legal department.
B.IANA.
C.IEEE.
D.their IT department.
Answer: D

9. Which of the following utilities will produce the results printed below?
Tracing route to 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops
1 <1 ms <1 ms172.30.0.78
A.tracert
B.ping
C.arp
D.netstat
Answer: A

10. A network technician is installing a small wireless network. A requirement is that individual users must authenticate using usernames and passwords. Which of the following technologies would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords?
A.WPA TLS
B.WPA PEAP
C.64bit WEP
D.128bit WEP
Answer: B

11. Which of the following cables would a technician make in order to identify a physical interface
problem?
A.Serial
B.Loopback
C.Rollover
D.Console
Answer: B

12. A second network card in a server that activates if the primary card fails is an example of which of the following network performance optimization?
A.Load balancing
B.QoS
C.High availability
D.Fault tolerance
Answer: D

13. A user reports that the wireless network is slow and is able to see and access shared folders that are unknown to the user. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The SSID broadcast is disabled.
B.Wireless router is improperly configured.
C.The user is connecting to the wrong SSID.
D.The wireless NIC is defective.
Answer: C

14. Which of the following security mitigation techniques is the MOST effective against zeroday
attacks?
A.Update antivirus definitions
B.MAC filtering
C.Effective security policies
D.User awareness training
Answer: D

15. Which of the following network protocols is used to ensure consistent time across network devices on the domain?
A.NTP
B.FTP
C.RTP
D.IGMP
Answer: A

16. Which of the following is resistant to crosstalk?
A.1000BaseT
B.10GBaseCX
C.100BaseFX
D.STP
Answer: C

17. A network administrator has been N10-004 receiving work orders about poor voice quality crossing a branch T1. The cause is determined to be users running high bandwidth file sharing applications across the T1 sending large packets delaying the smaller voice streams. Which of the following would improve voice quality?
A.Configure traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application.
B.Configure a separate VLAN for the IP phones.
C.Install a content caching proxy at the branch to reduce inbound WAN traffic.
D.Upgrade switches to provide higher bandwidth ports for workstations and IP phones.
Answer: A

18. Which of the following devices is used to connect a WAN to a LAN?
A.Basic router
B.Basic switch
C.Bridge
D.Repeater
Answer: A

19. A new segment needs to be added to a network to provide access for 64 servers. Which of the
following subnets will provide the needed access and still conserve IP addresses?
A.192.168.1.0/26
B.192.168.1.0/23
C.192.168.1.0/24
D.192.168.1.0/25
Answer: D

20. PPTP is a combination of which of the following protocols? (Select TWO).
A.PPP
B.TCP/IP
C.TCP
D.POP3
E.PPPoE
Answer: AB

N10-003 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1. 221.17.101.223/28 is an example of which kind of notation?
A. ARP
B. CIDR
C. DNS
D. Port Number
Answer: B

2. Which of the following methods of user authentication is the MOST secure?
A. CHAP
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS
D. EAP
Answer: B

3. 802.11 security is defined in:
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11i.
Answer: D

4. Which of the following is a selfassigned address based on APIPA?
A. 169.255.1.0
B. 169.254.1.1
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is true regarding NetWare Directory Services (NDS) configuration?
A. Remote users can access the tree through dialin connections.
B. Mobile users do not require changing the NDS name context.
C. Remote users do not require a special NDS object entry.
D. There are no differences between mobile users and remote users.
Answer: A

6. A user connects to the companys intranet server via a VPN connection from a small office / home office (SOHO) using the broadband service. One day, the user cannot successfully connect to the VPN and receives an error message that states “Username and password are invalid on the domain.” Which of the following should be done to correct this problem?
A. Call the corporate help desk to have the VPN server rebooted
B. Reenter the username and password in the VPN connection and reconnect
C. Call the broadband Internet provider to replace the SOHO router with a newer model
D. Ping the corporate VPN server to ensure it is online
Answer: B

7. When one connection to a host fails in a full mesh network, which of the following is true?
A. All hosts can communicate.
B. No hosts can communicate.
C. Half of the hosts will lose communication.
D. Only the two hosts between the failed connection will lose communication.
Answer: A

8. Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. IMAP4
D. Telnet
Answer: B

9. Which of the following would be considered a routing protocol? (Select TWO).
A. OSPF
B. DHCP
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: AE

10. Which of the following is STP BEST identified by under the cable sheath?
A. Number of twists in wires
B. Number of wires
C. Lubricant
D. Foil
Answer: D

11. Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:
A. Telnet.
B. FTP.
C. SIP.
D. TLS.
Answer: D

12. A user states that they cannot access a network shared drive. The technician has verified that the clients network cable is good. The IP address of the machine is 169.254.10.15. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. The WINS server is not resolving names properly.
B. The DNS server is not resolving names.
C. The DHCP server is out of IP address leases.
D. The hosts file is corrupted.
Answer: C

13. A user has a small network of four computers that they want to connect to a single cable modem. Which of the following devices would allow the user to do this?
A. Four port switch
B. Four port wireless router
C. Four port WAP
D. Four port hub
Answer: B

14. Which of the following are valid public IPv4 addresses? (Select TWO).
A. 10.2.127.220/16
B. 127.0.0.1/24
C. 212.2.17.54/16
D. 9.2.128.254/8
E. 127.2.126.213/24
Answer: CD

15. Which of the following network protocols is needed to ensure that users can type in a FQDN instead of the IP address?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. WINS
D. IMAP4
Answer: A

16. An administrator is in charge of several remote servers in Japan. Users call and complain they cannot connect to the company’s resources located on those servers. Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to verify the servers are running?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. nbtstat
D. telnet
Answer: A

17. Which of the following is the MOST common pinout configuration used when crimping RJ45
connectors?
A. UTP
B. T568A/B
C. STP
D. IEEE 802.5
Answer: B

18. A technician is installing a N10-003 basic router for a SOHO network. After installing the router the PCs
connected to it are not able to acquire an IP address. Which of the following did the technician fail to configure correctly?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. WINS
D. NAT
Answer: A

19. Routing convergence time is which of the following?
A. Time required for a VPN connection to occur
B. Time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred
C. Time required for an IDS to detect suspicious software
D. Time required by switch ports to update their link status and transition to the forwarding state
Answer: B

20. A second network card in a server that activates if the primary card fails is an example of which of the following network performance optimization?
A. Load balancing
B. QoS
C. High availability
D. Fault tolerance
Answer: D

21. A technician notices that when trying to ping a workstation by network name the workstation does not reply back over the network. The workstation is part of the domain and is able to get to the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. Faulty cable on the workstation
B. Wrong host name on the workstation
C. Wrong WINS on the workstation
D. Incorrect IP address assigned to the workstation
Answer: B

22. A network technician is installing a series of three access points to cover the entire wing of a building. Each access point has a wired connection and 802.11g is being used for the wireless transmission. Which of the following channels should be used for the access points?
A. Channels 1611
B. Channels 135
C. Channels 7111
D. Channels 246
Answer: A

23. Which of the following network devices operates on Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge
Answer: A

24. Which of the following are forms of gigabit Ethernet that require the use of fiber optic cables? (Select THREE).
A. 1000BaseCX
B. 1000BaseTX
C. 1000BaseSX
D. 10BaseT
E. 1000BaseT
F. 1000BaseLX
Answer: ACF

25. Given the following routing table entries, which of the following will the nexthop
address be for a packet destined for N10-003 dumps the address 192.168.1.203?
Network Address Subnet Mask Next Hop Address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.0.5.5
192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 66.40.90.121
192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 72.40.91.1
192.168.1.0 255.255.255.127 40.40.0.254
A. 77.0.5.5
B. 40.40.0.254
C. 66.40.90.121
D. 72.40.91.1
Answer: D

26. Which of the following is the default port for telnet?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

27. Which of the following protocols would a multilayer switch use to learn the IP address of a directly connected device?
A. ARP
B. BOOTP
C. InverseARP
D. DNS
Answer: A

28. A user is unable to connect to the network. A network technician is able to determine that there is a problem on the switch. All other users on that switch are able to connect successfully to the network. Which of the following is a probable cause?
A. Switching loop is occurring on the switch.
B. Wrong subnet mask on the switch.
C. Incorrect SNMP settings on the switch.
D. Port is misconfigured on the switch.
Answer: D

29. A network administrator of a N10-003 study guide company has many branch locations each using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols should be used?
A. IPv6
B. RIP
C. IGRP
D. RIPv2
Answer: D

30. Which of the following will list the destination MAC addresses?
A. ping
B. dig
C. nbtstat
D. arp
Answer: D

220-602 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1. A technician installs a SATA controller card and moves the hard drive cable from the system board to the SATA controller. The system POSTs and the controller BIOS recognizes the hard drive but does not boot to the hard drive and start Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Windows cannot be booted from a 220-602 study guide controller card.
B. The hard drive must have Windows reinstalled because a new controller card was installed.
C. The SATA controller card was not set as a boot device in the computer BIOS.
D. The new controller must have the correct jumper settings for Windows mode.
Answer: C

2. Which of the following IEEE standards applies to parallel data transmission?
A. IEEE 1394
B. IEEE 802.3
C. IEEE 802.11
D. IEEE 1284
Answer: D

3. After rightclicking on an applications shortcut icon and selecting Properties, which of the following will identify the location of the application?
A. Start In
B. Location
C. Shortcut key
D. Run
Answer: A

4. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?
A. Copy
B. sysprep
C. xcopy
D. Shadow copy
Answer: B

6. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to troubleshoot a users network connectivity problem?
A. Run TRACERT from the users workstation.
B. Start with the Last Known Good Configuration and reboot the computer.
C. Replace the network interface card (NIC).
D. PING the users workstation.
Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements about cooling is true?
A. Adapter cards (e.g. modems) do not add to the heat generated in a computer case.
B. Bus mastering reduces the amount of heat generated inside a computer case.
C. Removing expansion slot covers can compromise cooling airflow design.
D. Periodic cleaning of the computer components inside the case has no effect on cooling efficiency.
Answer: C

8. A technician accesses a corporate users hard drive and notices that there are inappropriate images in their My Documents folder. Accessing this kind of material is a clear violation of company policy. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Confront the user and tell them to remove the material.
B. Backup the files and delete them from the users folder.
C. Inquire with the manager about policies and procedures.
D. Ignore the files, this is the users personal documents folder.
Answer: C

9. When a technician is moving a CRT monitor to another location, the monitor falls and breaks. Which of the following is the BEST way for a technician to clean up after this accident?
A. Use gloves and a broom to sweep the glass and debris into a rigid container.
B. Use a bucket of warm water and bleach to wash away loose debris before placing the glass in a trash can.
C. Individually pick up the glass and place into a plastic bag, do not sweep as this may cause dust to become airborne.
D. Use latex surgical gloves to place the glass into a plastic bag, sealing the bag after.
Answer: A

10. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?
A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.
B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.
C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.
D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.
Answer: B

11. A technician deploys a computer in a public library and wants to give the ability for a user without an account to use the computer with limited permission. Which of the following accounts would the technician setup?
A. Guest user account
B. Limited user account
C. Power user account
D. Administrator user account
Answer: A

12. A client has called with concerns that their computer problem has not been resolved by the onsite technician who has left. As the technicians supervisor, which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Tell the client that they will need to place another service call.
B. Ask the client if they would like to discuss their computer problems in more detail.
C. Tell the client that another technician will be sent out.
D. Inform the client that the problem will be resolved by the onsite technician at another time.
Answer: B

13. A technician cannot connect using Remote Desktop. Which of the following ports needs to be allowed in the firewall?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 8080
D. 3389
Answer: D

14. In which of the following
220-602 dumps scenarios would MAC filtering be MOST effective as a part of wireless
security?
A. A public place where guests are free to access the wireless network.
B. A small office where a defined number of specific wireless devices are used.
C. A meeting room where various company users will access the wireless network during meetings.
D. An office where some users are unable to use WPA encryption due to older wireless cards so they use MAC filtering.
Answer: B

15. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the Could not read from selected boot disk display upon booting?
A. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.
B. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.
C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.
D. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.
Answer: A

16. The new security feature in Vista that prevents programs from running with escalated privileges is called:
A. User Account Control (UAC).
B. Windows Sidebar.
C. Windows Defender.
D. Aero Interface.
Answer: A

17. Which of the following utilities can be used to determine the current partition information on an attached storage device?
A. Add Hardware Wizard
B. Device Manager
C. Disk Management
D. Control Panel
Answer: C

18. A customer reports that their sound is not working. They state that the speakers worked previously. Which of the following should the technician check? (Select THREE).
A. Speakers are in regulatory compliance.
B. Speakers are on and the mute is off.
C. Ensure the speakers are on the Windows HCL.
D. Verify the system has enough hard drive space.
E. The audio driver is installed correctly.
F. Speakers are plugged into the correct jack.
Answer: BEF

19. A technician is attempting to get 220-602 into the BIOS and they are being prompted for a password. Which of the following can clear the BIOS password? (Select TWO).
A. Pull the CMOS battery.
B. Pull the 20/24 pin connector from the main board.
C. Short the reset circuit near the RAM.
D. Use the appropriate jumper on main board.
E. Use the reset button on the front panel.
Answer: AD

20. Shortly after the Press CtrlAltDelete to login screen appears in Windows XP, a user gets the error One or more services failed to start. Which of the following locations could be accessed to identify the service that did not start and attempt to start the service manually? (Select TWO).
A. Computer Management
B. Services MMC Plugin
C. Event Log
D. Task Manager
E. System Configuration Utility
Answer: AB

21. A user states while saving files on the hard disk some of the data is inaccessible. The technician suspects a hard disk problem. Which of the following Windows utilities should be used to confirm hard disk issues?
A. chkdsk
B. dir
C. diskpart
D. format
Answer: A

22. Which of the following directory paths is the default profile folder for User1 in Windows 2000?
A. C:\Users\User1
B. C:\User1
C. C:\Documents and Settings\Users\User1
D. C:\Documents and Settings\User1
Answer: D

23. The fan on a power supply has stopped spinning completely due to dust collection. Which of the following is the BEST way for a technician to correct this issue?
A. Open the power supply and replace the fan.
B. Supplement with additional case fans.
C. Use a screwdriver to move the fan blades.
D. Remove and replace the power supply.
Answer: D

24. Which of the following would have to be disabled on a PC if a user wants to assign a static IP address on that PC?
A. SSID
B. MAC filtering
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Answer: C

25. A user gets an error that the SQL service is not started. Which of the following can the technician do to start the service? (Select TWO).
A. Start>Programs/Accessories/System Tools/Scheduled Tasks>Services>Start
B. Control Panel>System>Advanced Tab>Startup and Recovery>Settings>Automatically Restart in
System Startup
C. Control Panel>Administrative Tools>Services>SQL service>start
D. Run prompt, type msconfig>Startup Tab>enable the SQL application to start
E. My Computer>Manage>Services and Applications>Services>SQL service>start
Answer: CE

26. A remote user is attempting to install a new external storage device on their computer. The user reports they only have one port open on the back of the device and the port is similar to the USB port their mouse is connected to. The port has a bevel on one side and is slightly larger than the USB port. Which of the following connector types is MOST likely being described?
A. IEEE 1394
B. USB 2.0
C. PCMCIA
D. Parallel
Answer: A

27. A printer is suddenly not printing using Windows XP. Which of the following is the BEST procedure to get the printing restarted?
A. Delete the printer drivers and restart the spooler service.
B. Examine the print queue, stop and then restart the spooler service.
C. Examine printer and faxes folder and check event log then start spooler service.
D. Delete the printer drivers, then delete and reload spooler service.
Answer: B

28. A technician purchases and installs a replacement motherboard for an older system. Which of the following should the technician do after the installation?
A. Install Windows.
B. Update firmware.
C. Apply Windows updates.
D. Update the power supply.
Answer: B

29. A user reports that they cannot access a file on the local D drive of their PC. This is a nonsystem/ nonboot drive. The technician needs to run chkdsk without rebooting the system. Which of the following methods will meet this goal?
A. From the command line, run chkdsk utilizing the /f switch.
B. From the command line, run chkdsk utilizing the /x switch.
C. Use the diskpart utility with the select option.
D. Use the Disk Management console to dismount the D drive and run chkdsk.
Answer: B

30. Which of the following cable types is required at minimum, to support a 10/100/1000BaseT SOHO LAN?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5e
C. CAT1
D. CAT5
Answer: B

220-601 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1. Which of the following is the MOST important quality of a technician as it relates to customer service?
A. Ability to listen and communicate effectively with the user
B. Ability to quickly fix any technical problem and correctly document the solution
C. Ability to solve any technical problem
D. Ability to maintain complete and concise logs
Answer: A

2. A technician has installed a new video card and the computer will now only boot into VGA mode.
Which of the following may be the cause of the problem?
A. There is an operating system incompatibility.
B. The incorrect drivers are installed.
C. The external monitor is not compatible.
D. The new card is not DVI compatible.
Answer: B

3. After installing a new cable modem and new router, which of the following should be the order used to start up the devices?
A. Turn on the cable modem, then the router, and then the computer.
B. Turn on the cable modem, then the computer, and then the router.
C. Turn on the router, then the computer, and then the cable modem.
D. Turn on the computer, then the cable modem, and then the router.
Answer: A

4. IEEE 1284 is a standard for:
A. infrared communication.
B. wireless networks.
C. wired networks.
D. parallel communication.
Answer: D

5. Which of the following is the fastest method to transfer data wirelessly?
A. Bluetooth
B. Standard infrared
C. General Packet Radio System (GPRS)
D. 802.11
Answer: D

6. Windows XP is being installed from a CD onto a computer that has no operating system. Which of the following installation methods would MOST likely be used?
A. Multiboot
B. Network
C. Attended
D. Automated
Answer: C

7. NTFS should be used for Windows XP rather than FAT32 because NTFS: (Select TWO).
A. allows for faster hard drive access.
B. ensured that all users 220-601 networked to a computer can read files.
C. gives a user more useable hard drive space.
D. allows Windows XP to use all available security features.
E. ensures full compatibility with new software.
Answer: CD

8. Which of the following assigns IP addresses to computers on a network? (Select TWO).
A. Exchange Server
B. Residential Router
C. DHCP Server
D. PC assigns its own
E. Switch
Answer: BC

9. The amount of power output from a power supply is rated in:
A. volts.
B. watts.
C. ampere hours.
D. joules.
Answer: B

10. In Windows XP, which of the following steps would be taken to set the permissions for a user to print within a specific time frame?
A. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Printer Settings > select the time
B. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Security tab > Time
C. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Advanced tab > select the time
D. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > General tab > Time
Answer: C

11. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers would be MOST appropriate to use on a fire in a laptop?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: C

12. Which of the following is the BEST way to remove a USB device on a laptop computer?
A. Remove hardware in Control Panel.
B. Stop the device, and then remove from laptop.
C. Turn off the laptop, and then turn off the device.
D. Remove the driver from Device Manager.
Answer: B

13. A coworker in the shop is being electrocuted while working on an improperly grounded CPU case. Which of the following is the BEST action to take?
A. Start CPR immediately.
B. Kick the computer case away from the worker.
C. Immediately turn off the power at the circuit breaker.
D. Use a wooden broom to separate the coworker from the CPU case.
Answer: C

14. If a technician is cleaning a mouse with rubbing alcohol from a spray bottle, which of the following should be worn?
A. Nonconductive shoes
B. An antistatic wrist strap
C. Safety clothing
D. Safety glasses
Answer: D

15. Which of the following memory modules has 72 pins? (Select TWO).
A. SIMM
B. DIMM
C. RIMM
D. SODIMM
E. RAMBUS
Answer: AD

16. Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate?
A. PC2100
B. DDR333
C. DDR400
D. PC2700
Answer: C

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?
A. Builtin encryption standards
B. Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives
C. Lack of drive heads and platters
D. Higher data integrity
Answer: C

18. Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: CD

19. The Windows Experience Index is used to determine:
A. remaining hard disk storage space.
B. a performance value of system components.
C. the speed and 220-601 dumps available bandwidth of Internet connections.
D. the reliability and speed of search indexing.
Answer: B

20. A users documents are now printing to a newly installed printer instead of to the printer they regularly use. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The old printer is out of paper.
B. The new printer drivers wrote over the old drivers.
C. The new printer was automatically set as the default printer.
D. The new printer has a lower IP address number than the older printer.
Answer: C

21. Which of the following audio/video devices have the ability to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source?
A. TV tuner card
B. Graphics card
C. Video capture card
D. Sound card
Answer: A

22. Which of the following types of media is considered solid state?
A. Tape drive
B. Floppy disk
C. DVD
D. Flash media
Answer: D

23. When installing the heatsink back into a computer after replacing a failed processor, which of the following must be done during installation?
A. Thermal compound must be installed between the processor and the heatsink.
B. An isopropyl alcohol pad must be placed between the processor and the heatsink.
C. An isopropyl alcohol pad must be placed between the processor and the system board.
D. Thermal compound must be installed between the processor and the system board.
Answer: A

24. Which of the following is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC?
A. 802.11n
B. MAC filtering
C. Channel 11
D. SSID
Answer: B

25. A client needs a laser printer cleaned. Which of the following tools would be appropriate to clean the inside of a laser printer?
A. Office vacuum
B. Toner vacuum
C. Damp cloth
D. Air compressor
Answer: B

26. Which of the following is the system bus speed of a PC2700 memory?
A. 133MHz
B. 166MHz
C. 266MHz
D. 333MHz
Answer: B

27. Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for?
A. Storing passwords
B. Blocking harmful network traffic
C. Securing wireless access points
D. Encrypting hard drives
Answer: D

28. Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO).
A. Motherboard
B. Fan
C. Heatsink
D. CPU
E. Capacitors
Answer: CD

29. A user states that their five year old system is shutting down randomly. A technician verifies that the heat sink is properly seated and all fans are operating. Which of the following would MOST likely be causing this issue?
A. Modem driver 220-601 study guide
conflict
B. Dried thermal compound
C. Malfunctioning optical drive
D. The latest service pack is not installed
Answer: B

30. A technician notices that there is a second partition on the primary hard drive. This partition is not assigned a drive letter and is not accessible from Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this extra partition?
A. Space reserved by the drive manufacturer for firmware.
B. Space set aside by Windows for use by the virtual memory swap file.
C. A potentially dangerous virus has been downloaded onto the system.
D. A recovery partition put there by the manufacturer.
Answer: D

Why you should choose RealExams 642-871 Exam?

September 9th, 2009

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Commitment to Real tests Your Success:

At RealExams we are committed to you ongoing success. Our exams and questions are constantly being updated and compared to industry standards.

You are not about to purchase a disposable product. 640-801 practice exam updates are supplied free of charge. Regardless of how soon you decide to take the actual 640-801 examination certification, you will be able to walk into the testing room as confident as the Certification Administrator.

Why you should choose RealExams 640-801 Exam?

September 9th, 2009

1. 100% Pass Guaranteed at First Attempt Or Full Refund.
2. 640-801 Interactive Testing Engine Included.
3. Immediate Download After Purchase.
4. Comprehensive questions with complete details.
5. Questions accompanied by exhibits.
6. 100% 640-801
Real Exams Verified Answers Researched by Certified Experts.
7. Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Real Exams.
8. Latest Questions updated on regular basis.
9. These questions and answers are backed by our Pass GUARANTEE.
10. Like real certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs).

Two features to RealExams 640-801 Testing Engine is Practice and Virtual modes:

1. Practice mode allows you to take the exam with answers at the ready.
2. Virtual mode keeps score and times your performance – as if you were at a PROMETRIC or VUE testing center.

However the actual dilemma is the preparation of this exam. Acquiring a certificate in 640-801 is not a piece of cake. The study alone is painstakingly tiring, and that too once you have already spent eons on arranging for the right material. This may not seem much to you at that time, but will cost you more in terms of credit, time and money. With RealExams however, this is a one time investment. Once you have the Questions and Answers, all you have to do is go through them. RealExams promises you Return on Investment ROI as soon as you write the exam. Yes, you read it right, RealExams Guarantees your success at your first attempt. Thus RealExams has not only arranged the best of the resources for you, but our confidence on the quality of our product is such that we promise you success right away.

No other preparation resource does that. The preparation itself is extremely easy. Once you purchase the set from us, you can
Real Exam Questions go through the questions and answers. Should 640-801 introduce any change, your product will be automatically updated free of charge. Once that is done, you can continue with studying and once you are done with the RealExams resources, you can register for the exam and write it right away. The results: you are already aware off! Our Exams come with 100% Pass Guaranteed for Full Refund.

Commitment to Your Success:

At RealExams we are committed to you ongoing success. Our exams and questions are constantly being updated and compared to industry standards.

You are not about to purchase a disposable product. 640-801 practice exam updates are supplied free of charge. Regardless of how soon you decide to take the actual 640-801 examination certification, you will be able to walk into the testing room as confident as the Certification Administrator

1Y0-259 Real Exam Questions or Full Refun

September 9th, 2009

Q: 1 Which step is required to obtain the license file when implementing Citrix Presentation Server 4.5 after installing the Citrix License Server?

A. Download the license file from MyCitrix.com and upload it to the License Management Console through
the License Files node.
B. Download the license file from MyCitrix.com and upload it to the License Management Console through
the File Locations node.
C. Download the license code from MyCitrix.com and enter it in the License Management Console through
the License Files node.
D. Download the license code from MyCitrix.com and enter it in the License Management Console through
the File Locations node.

Answer: A

Q: 2 Scenario: An administrator is installing Presentation Server 4.5. The company requires the use of the Program Neighborhood Agent as the pass-through client and that users should be explicitly prompted for authentication to Citrix Presentation Server. Which two steps must the administrator take during the installation to meet the company’s requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Select “no” for pass-through authentication for the pass-through client.
B. Select “yes” for pass-through authentication for the pass-through client.
C. Replace the default Client with the Program Neighborhood Agent as the pass-through client.
D. Specify the URLs of the web server running the Program Neighborhood Agent Services Site.

Answer: A, D

Q: 3 Scenario: A company has a Citrix Presentation Server 4.0 on Windows Server 2003 implementation and will upgrade to Citrix Presentation Server 4.5. The administrator must migrate the current farm while preserving the current custom configuration settings. Which type of installation should the administrator follow?

A. The automatic upgrade path, choosing custom settings in the autorun installations
B. The automatic upgrade path, accepting the default settings in the autorun installations
C. The phased migration path, joining a server running Citrix Presentation Server 4.5 on Windows Server 2003 to the current farm and acquiring the configuration settings
D. The phased migration path, installing Citrix Presentation Server 4.5 on a server running on Windows Server 2003 independent of the current farm and manually configuring the custom settings

Answer: B

Q: 4 Scenario: When planning a Presentation Server deployment on multiple servers, an organization wants to ensure that there is no Presentation Server as a single point of failure. Which three database options eliminate the single point of failure? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle
B. IBM DB2
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft SQL Server
E. Microsoft SQL Express

Answer: A, B, D

Q: 5 Which two Health Monitoring and Recovery tests are enabled by default? (Choose two.)

A. Citrix IMA Service
B. Citrix XML Service
C. Citrix SMA Service
D. Citrix XTE Server Service

Answer: A, B

Q: 6 Scenario: An administrator enables CPU Optimization for the entire farm. After installing a CPU-intensive Computer Aided Drawing and Design (CADD) application, several power users ask how additional CPU may be allocated specifically to them. Which statement is correct?

A. CPU allocation is defined by network bandwidth.
B. CPU allocation can be configured in the registry.
C. The administrator 1Y0-259 cannot configure CPU allocation.
D. The administrator can configure CPU allocation in the farm properties.

Answer: B

Q: 7 Scenario: An administrator installs a new database application that uses a .ZTC extension for its data files on servers running Presentation Server. The .ZTC extension does not show as a file type association option when attempting to publish the application. Why is .ZTC not listed as a file type association when publishing applications?

A. The servers that host the application have not been rebooted.
B. The file type association function is not supported for that extension.
C. The administrator has not run the “Update from registry…” option from the console.
D. The administrator is attempting to publish the application to a server that does not have the application installed.

Answer: C

Q: 8 Scenario: During the course of one day, the administrator of a large server farm comprised of a single zone notices that the IMA Work Item Queue Ready Count metric on the data collector for the zone has repeatedly been just above zero. The data collector supports 50 servers and hosts 10 productivity applications. There is no backup data collector configured for the zone. There is one server that only has one proprietary application suite published. This proprietary application suite is only used by the Finance department but is mission critical for that department. Which two actions would best address the needs of the environment described in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. Restart the IMA service on the data collector.
B. Increase the preference of one of the 50 servers to Preferred status.
C. Increase the preference of the server hosting the proprietary application suite to Most Preferred status.
D. Add the registry key entry MaxHostAddressCacheEntries to the data collector for the zone and set it to 50.
E. Dedicate the existing data collector by removing the productivity applications from the server and setting it to Most Preferred status.

Answer: B, E

Q: 9 Which benefit is the result of enabling Memory Optimization?

A. Memory is allocated to each user proportionately.
B. Each server can more efficiently initiate applications.
C. Memory is dynamically reallocated based on specific user need.
D. The administrator controls the maximum amount of memory per user.

Answer: B

Q: 10 A new IT policy requires the use of configuration logging. What is the first step the Citrix Administrator must take to set up configuration logging?

A. Create a configuration logging database
B. Configure a configuration logging database
C. Configure the configuration logging settings
D. Create report specification for configuration logging reports

Answer: A

Q: 11 Scenario: Administrators currently have the Health Monitoring and Recovery test relating to logons enabled to alert them in the event of a failure. Server “CPS14″ has alerted them many times today, and they are aware of the problem but do not have time to remedy this issue until tomorrow. Which configuration change should the administrative staff make?

A. Set the server properties to reboot the server if the Logon test fails.
B. Set the server farm properties to reboot the server if the Logon test fails.
C. Set the server properties to remove the server from load balancing if the test fails.
D. Set the server farm properties to remove the server from load balancing if the test fails.

Answer: C

Q: 12 Scenario: A published application requires an explicit IP address for each of its 200 concurrent clients for licensing purposes. The administrator decided to achieve this by using
Virtual IP addresses. What should be added to maintain the licensing requirements?

A. The process to the “Virtual Loopback Processes”
B. A new IP address to the Virtual IP Address Configuration
C. The process executable to the Virtual IP Process monitored list
D. A set of IP addresses from a different subnet than the Virtual IP addresses

Answer: C

Q: 13 Scenario: An administrator plans on deploying a CPU-intensive application and has determined that CPU Utilization Management should be implemented. Based on testing, the administrator expects to maximize each server at 40 users with the assumption that only this application is being deployed. What will be the approximate CPU slice that would be allocated to each user?

A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%

Answer: A

Q: 14 Scenario: An administrator notices that there are occasional issues with traffic traversing TCP port 2512, in the farm running Citrix Presentation Server. Which Health
Monitoring and Recovery test should the administrator configure?

A. Citrix IMA Service
B. Citrix XTE Service
C. Citrix XML Service
D. Terminal Services

Answer: A

Q: 15 Which two steps are required when using Active Directory to deploy client packages to Windows 2000 Professional clients? (Choose two.)

A. Assign the package to a user or group of users.
B. Assign the package to a computer or to a group of computers.
C. Go to a command line on the client device and type GPUPDATE /FORCE.
D. Restart the client machine to allow the Active Directory Group Policy to automatically install the client.

Answer: B, D

Q: 16 Scenario: Users in the Human Resources department experience long wait times when loading graphics in published Internet Explorer and Microsoft Outlook. Which SpeedScreen solution should be configured to lower the resolution of these graphics and optimize the user experience?

A. SpeedScreen Image Acceleration
B. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
C. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
D. SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration

Answer: C

Q: 17 Scenario: An environment consists of all expert-level computer users. Therefore, the administrator feels comfortable allowing users to access resources through an interface from their desktops, which they can use to configure options. Navigating through the interface should be easy, as users will be expected to not only be able to do this but also understand the implications of any changes they make. Which client is most appropriate for this environment?

A. Client for Web
B. Access Gateway
C. Program Neighborhood
D. Program Neighborhood Agent

Answer: C

Q: 18 Scenario: Currently, an administrator does not want to publish resources using the Web Interface. However, the administrator plans to implement Web Interface at a later time and may grant access to published resources through the Web Interface at that time. Based on future plans, which client should be deployed now?

A. Web Client
B. Secure Access Client
C. Program Neighborhood Client
D. Program Neighborhood Agent Client

Answer: C

Q: 19 Which three steps are required to deploy clients using Microsoft Active Directory? (Choose three.)

A. Create a network share.
B. Configure a policy in Presentation Server for Client deployment.
C. Add users to an Organizational Unit designated for Presentation Server environment.
D. Create a new package in the Software Installation object for an Active Directory group policy object.
E. Browse to the installation files on the network share and assign them to the Organizational Unit which includes the client devices.

Answer: A, D, E

Q: 20 Scenario: An administrator wants to create and deploy a client package that includes the Web Client using the Client Packager.
The administrator wants:
To be able to make modifications to the file
The client name to be different from the computer name
Users to specify a username and password to log on to a session
Clients to be deployed from a web page using Web Interface

Based on these requirements, which two steps must be completed when creating and deploying the client package? (Choose two.)

A. Create a network share.
B. Select the manage client deployment task.
C. Accept the default value for the client name option.
D. Enable users to choose how their applications are launched.
E. Select UNCOMPRESSED in the “Create a Windows Installer” option.
F. Select use of Kerberos
1Y0-259 dumps Authentication in combination with Security Support Provider Interface.

Answer: B, E

Q: 21 Scenario: Users in the Accounting department experience delays when attempting to launch Microsoft Excel. As a result, users tend to open multiple copies of the application, as they click multiple times on the application icon before the application finally launches. Which
SpeedScreen solution should the administrator configure to optimize the user experience and how?

A. SpeedScreen Latency Reduction, disabling Mouse Click Feedback
B. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration, adding Microsoft Excel to the list of applications in the policy
C. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration, customizing its settings at the farm level for accounting users
D. SpeedScreen Latency Reduction, testing all aspects of Microsoft Excel in a non-production environment

Answer: D

Q: 22 Scenario: Users experience poor picture quality of animations played in published web applications. They also notice that when they have several sessions open at the same time, certain sessions tend to become affected by another session’s activity. Which SpeedScreen solution can be configured to optimize the user experience in this scenario?

A. SpeedScreen Flash Acceleration
B. SpeedScreen Image Acceleration
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Multimedia Acceleration

Answer: A

Q: 23 Scenario: An administrator at a company is trying to determine which Presentation Server client to use. The administrator wants users to access published resources through the corporate intranet. The administrator also wants a client that does not require user configurations.
The most recent versions of Microsoft Internet Explorer and Netscape Navigator are installed on the client devices in the environment.
Which client is best suited for this environment?

A. Web Client
B. Secure Access Client
C. Program Neighborhood Client
D. Program Neighborhood Agent Client

Answer: A

Q: 24 Which step is required to deploy clients to users using the Web Interface?

A. Enable client installation in the Access Management Console.
B. Prepare the Web Interface server to contain the required client files.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU) and Group Policy Objects link.
D. Browse to a network share containing the ICA32PKG.MSI file and set the deployment method in the Windows Installer package.

Answer: B

Q: 25 Scenario: An administrator is setting up an environment for Presentation Server so that connection limits in the server farm only allow each user to launch a maximum of two sessions while simultaneously allowing users in the Technical Support Department the ability to launch five sessions each.
How can the administrator accomplish both goals?

A. Set the connection limits for all users and the Technical Support Department users in the properties of the server farm.
B. Create a policy, set the Overall Session rule to five sessions and assign it to the Technical Support Department users.
C. Configure all applications used by the Technical Support Department to run on one server and change the connection limit to five in the properties of that server.
D. Create a policy to limit the total concurrent 1Y0-259 study guide sessions to five and assign it to the Technical Support Department users. Change the connection limit to two in the properties of the server farm.

Answer: D

Q: 26 An administrator needs to create a printing policy for client printers so that print jobs are sent directly to a network print server. Which policy rule must the administrator configure?

A. Print job routing
B. Network print routing
C. Client printer mapping
D. Client printer redirection

Answer: A

Q: 27 Scenario: A company has a farm consisting of servers running Presentation Server in three geographical data centers: Hong Kong, London and New York. New York users require a web-based cataloging application that contains a large number of JPEG photos of the various hardware items that are sold only in the Americas.
Unlike users in the other regions, most employees in the Americas are remote sales and service people, and there are no minimum connection requirements. Some users access the environment through wireless WANs and dial-up connections. The administrator decides that graphical detail is not a priority as long as the screen display appears quickly even when a slow connection is detected for the New York data center. The administrator also decides to optimize the SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration capability for the ten servers in the New York zone.
Which three SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration options should be selected within the server properties of each of these ten servers? (Choose three.)

A. Determine when to compress
B. Enable SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
C. Use farm settings for SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
D. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to low
E. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to high

Answer: A, B, E

Q: 28 Scenario: A company has one remote office. Users in the remote office access published applications on servers running Presentation Server over a WAN connection and often are troubled with latency and bandwidth issues. The administrator has created a policy to address the latency and bandwidth issues and wants to apply the policy to client IP addresses that correlate to the ranges assigned to client devices in the remote office. Which three steps are required to apply the policy? (Choose three.)

A. Apply the policy at client log in.
B. Select the Client IP address filter.
C. Apply the filter to all client IP addresses.
D. Specify start and end ranges for IP addresses.
E. Apply the filter to a select range of client IP addresses and allow access.

Answer: B, D, E

Q: 29 Scenario: An enterprise organization has an environment which consists of three regional sites separated into three zones - Miami, London, and San Francisco. The administrator would like to ensure that users in Miami connect to servers in Miami before being redirected to the servers in the other zones. What must the administrator do to configure the Zone Preference and
Failover policy to ensure this behavior?

A. Set the Miami zone as backup group 1.
B. Set the Miami zone as the primary zone.
C. Add users in the Miami zone as backup users in the London and San Francisco zones.
D. Add users in the Miami zone as primary users in the London and San Francisco zones.

Answer: B

Q: 30 Scenario: A company recently implemented Citrix Presentation Server. The company plans to use the shadowing feature to improve their help desk activities. Specifically, the company wants the help desk personnel to be able to shadow all users in the company’s domain and manipulate their work stations remotely. For security and privacy reasons, the company wants to ensure that users must accept shadowing before help desk personnel can shadow them. During the Presentation Server installation, the administrator allowed shadowing but did not configure any settings for remote control or shadow acceptance. The administrator has just created a policy titled “Shadowing.” Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Enable permissions for all users and set status to allow.
B. Enable permissions for all help desk users and set status to allow.
C. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit being shadowed without notification.
D. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit remote input when being shadowed.

Answer: B, C

70-282 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

1.You are a network consultant for a company that has 175 employees. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows NT Server 4.0. The company plans to open a branch office that will be connected to the main office through an ISDN connection.
The company has the following requirements:
•Add the branch office to the existing network.
•Ensure network security when users connect to the branch office over the Internet.
•Enable a session to be mutually authenticated and encrypted between the main office and the branch office.
•Centralize management of user and computer privileges.
•Allow users in the branch office to authenticate to the domain even if the ISDN
connection is unavailable.
You need to submit a network upgrade proposal that will meet the company’s requirements.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install a backup domain controller (BDC) at the branch office.
B. Install a domain controller and a global catalog server that runs Microsoft Windows
Server 2003 at the branch office.
C. Migrate the Windows NT Server 4.0 domain to Microsoft Windows Server 2003.
D. Purchase and install Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server
2004 on a new server computer. Configure all 70-282 authentication requests from the branch office to connect to this server.
E. Upgrade the Windows NT Server 4.0 domain to Microsoft Windows Small Business Server
2003 Premium Edition.
Answer: B,C

2. You are a network consultant for a company. The network contains 10 servers that run both Microsoft Windows NT Server 4.0 and Microsoft Exchange Server 5.5. There are 400 client computers that run Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional.
The company has the following requirements:
•Ensure the ability to add additional servers to the messaging environment.
•Ensure that users can retrieve e-mail messages from remote locations.
•Ensure that mailbox limits do not exceed 200 MB for each user. The company wants to achieve these goals while minimizing costs. You need to submit a proposal that meets these requirements.
Which two recommendations should your proposal include? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Migrate all servers to Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition.
B. Purchase hardware to set up a server cluster. Implement an active/active cluster
by using Microsoft Exchange Server 2003.
C. Purchase hardware to set up a server cluster. Implement an active/passive cluster
by using Microsoft Exchange Server 2003.
D. Migrate all servers to Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition.
E. Migrate all Exchange 5.5 servers to Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Standard
Edition.
F. Migrate all Exchange 5.5 servers to Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Enterprise
Edition.
Answer: A,E

3.You are a network consultant for a construction company. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition.
The company’s branch office at a remote location uses a high-latency satellite connection that is frequently unavailable. There are 15 users at the branch office. These users remotely access a line-of-business (LOB) application.
Users at the branch office report that:
•It takes a long time to log on to the network.
•The LOB application takes a long time to process requests and requests often time out.
•The LOB application stops running when the connection terminates. You need to identify the causes of these problems.
Which two causes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth of the satellite connection is inadequate to support user requests.
B. Authentication occurs at the main office rather than at the branch office.
C. The LOB application runs on the server at the main office.
D. Disk throughput on the server at the main office is inadequate to support user requests.
Answer: B,C

4.You are a network consultant for a company. The company president uses a broadband connection to connect to the Internet from his office.
The network contains 10 client computers that run Microsoft Windows 95 in a peer-to-peer network. One of these client computers functions as the file server. Employees share data by using floppy disks, and they do not have access to the Internet.
You need to modify the network environment to meet the following requirements:
•Employees can share data without using floppy disks.
•Employees can access the Internet through a single connection.
•Centralized user administration.
•Dedicated e-mail server.
•Ability to encrypt files on client computers.
You need to identify solutions that meet these requirements while minimizing costs. Which three solutions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Use the existing broadband connection.
B. Purchase a leased broadband connection to the Internet.
C. Upgrade all client computers to Windows XP Professional.
D. Upgrade all client computers to the latest Windows 95 Service Pack.
E. Install a server that runs Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition.
F. Install a server that runs Windows Small Business Server 2003 Premium Edition.
Answer: A,C,E

5.You are the network administrator for your company. The company’s main office has 30 users. There are three branch offices with five users each. All offices connect to the Internet through a broadband connection.
You purchase a new server to store company data in a central location and to host internal e-mail accounts of users. You must ensure that all users can access the new server in the main office through the Internet. You must also ensure that users can access e-mail messages that are hosted on the new server.
You need to choose and install an operating system that will meet these requirements. You need to achieve this goal while minimizing costs.
What should you do?
A. Install Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition on the new server.
B. Install Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with Internet Information
Services (IIS) on the new server. Install Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 on the server
to enable messaging.
C. Install Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and then install Windows
SharePoint Services on the new server. Instruct all users to use the SharePoint site
on the new server.
D. Install Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition on the new server. Instruct all users to use the SharePoint site.
Answer: D

6. You are the network administrator for your company. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition.
You install a database application on 70-282 dumps the server. The response time of the server to numerous concurrent requests becomes unacceptably slow. You decide to host the application on another server named Server2.
You need to choose and install an operating system on Server2. You want to achieve this goal while minimizing costs.
Which operating system should you choose?
A. Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Premium Edition
B. Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

7. You are the network administrator for your company. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Microsoft Exchange Server 2003.
The company recently hired several interns and is concerned about accessibility to personal information in the Global Address List (GAL).
You need to restrict interns from accessing information about permanent employees of the company in the GAL.? However, interns should be able to access information about other interns.
What should you do?
A. Configure recipient filtering in the GAL to restrict the view for interns.
B. Remove the Read permission for interns from the GAL. Assign access only to custom address lists that do not include permanent employees.
C. Configure an alternate GAL for interns that does not include permanent employees.
D. Specify a higher priority level for mailboxes of permanent employees than that for mailboxes of interns.
Answer: C

8. You are a network consultant for a company. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition.
You want to enable users to configure VPN clients. You configure Routing and Remote
Access on the server to enable VPN connections.
You need to enable users to establish their own VPN connection. You need to achieve this by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Remote Access wizard on the server. Instruct users to connect to the Remote Web Workplace.
B. Create a remote connection disk. Run the disk on the server and push the settings to client computers that need to connect to the VPN. Update the disk with the VPN configuration as needed.
C. Create a script file that has the required settings for client computers. Run this script on the server and push the settings to client computers that require a VPN connection.
D. Create a script file that has the required settings for client computers. Run this script on client computers that require a VPN connection.
Answer: A

9. You are a network consultant for a company. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition. The company uses a Microsoft Access database.
Users report that the response time of the database is slow. You also discover that data is not saved correctly to the database.
You need to recommend a database solution that decreases query response time and ensures that data is saved correctly.
What are two possible solutions to achieve these goals? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the server to Microsoft Windows Server 2003.
B. Purchase and install Microsoft SQL Server 2005 on a new server computer. Migrate the Access database to the SQL Server computer.
C. Upgrade the server to Windows Small Business Server 2003 Premium Edition. Migrate the Access database to the SQL Server component of Windows Small Business Server 70-282 study guide 2003 Premium Edition.
D. Increase the value of the MaxBufferSize variable in the Msaccess.ini file to allocate more memory to the Access database.
Answer: B,C

10.You are the network administrator for your company. The network contains a server that runs Microsoft Windows Small Business Server 2003 Standard Edition.
The company frequently purchases software to be installed on client computers.
You need to identify a solution that will push software to client computers with the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an unattended installation source on a shared folder on the network. Install software on client computers by using a logon script.
B. Share the drive on the server that contains the new software. Create an unattended setup file on a CD-ROM. Instruct users to run the CD-ROM on their computers.
C. Publish the software to users through a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. Assign the software to users through a Group Policy object (GPO).
Answer: D

70-298 Real Exam Questions or Full Refund

September 9th, 2009

Case 1, Lucerne Publishing
Overview
Lucerne Publishing is an industry leader in publishing technology textbooks, e­books, and magazines. Physical Locations
The company has three offices, as shown in the Physical Locations and Connectivity exhibit.

The company’s main office is in New York, 70-298 and it has branch offices in Denver and Dallas. The company’s employees and departments are distributed as shown in the following table
Office location

Number of employees

Number of employees
New York

400

Editorial and information technology (IT)
Denver

95

Development
Dallas

80

Production

Business Processes
The IT staff in the New York office uses client computers to remotely administer all Lucerne Publishing servers and domain controllers. Employees use their company client computers to access archived published books and archived accounting information through an internal Web site that runs IIS 6.0. Directory Services
The company’s network consists of a single Active Directory domain named lucernepublishing.com. All servers run Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition. Administration of Active Directory is centralized in New York. Denver and Dallas user and computer accounts are located in their respective child OUs, as shown in the Organizational Unit Hierarchy exhibit.

The NYAdmins, ProductionAdmins, EditorialAdmins, and DevelopmentAdmins global user groups have full control of their respective organizational units (OUs). These global groups are located in their respective OUs.
Network Infrastructure
All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
The domain contains a public key infrastructure (PKI). The company uses an internal subordinate enterprise certification authority (CA) to issue certificates to users and computers. Each branch office has a wireless network that supports desktop and portable client computers. The wireless network
infrastructure in each branch office contains an Internet Authentication Service (IAS) server and wireless access points that support IEEE 802.1x, RADIUS, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP).
Problem Statements
The following business problems must be considered: Members of the EditorialAdmins group and unauthorized users as members to this group. Members of this group must be restricted to only authorized users.
Editors connect to a shared folder named Edits on a member server named Server5. When they attempt
to encrypt data located in Edits, they receive an error message stating that they cannot encrypt data. Editors need to encrypt data remotely on Server5.
Some users in the Dallas office changed the location of their My Documents folders to shared folders on servers that do not back up their My Documents data. As a result, data was lost. The Dallas My Documents folders need to be moved to a server that backs up user data. Users in the Dallas office must
be prevented from changing the location of their My Documents folder in the future. Chief Information Officer Security is Lucerne Publishing’s primary concern. We must improve security on client computers, servers, and domain controllers by implementing a secure password policy. For legal reasons, we need a logon message that tells users that access to servers in the development department is restricted to only authorized users.
System Administrator
Each department needs different security patches. We need to test security patches prior to deploying
them. After they are tested, the patches need to be deployed automatically to servers in each department.
As we deploy the patches, we need to limit the network bandwidth used to obtain security patches. Chief Security Officer
We need to automatically track when administrators modify user rights on a server or on a domain controller and when they modify local security account manager objects on servers.
We must implement the most secure method for authenticating Denver and Dallas users that access the wireless networks.
We need to protect data as it is sent between the wireless client computers and the wireless access points. Client computers need to automatically obtain wireless network access security settings.
Written Security Policy
The Lucerne Publishing written security policy includes the following requirements.
Passwords must contain at least seven characters and must not contain all or part of the user’s account name. Passwords must contain uppercase and lowercase letters and numbers. The minimum password age must be 10 days, and the maximum password age must be 45 days.
Access to data on servers in the production department must be logged.
A standard set of security settings must be deployed to all servers in the development, editorial, and production departments. These settings must be configured and managed from a central location.
Servers in the domain must be routinely examined for missing security patches and service packs and to ascertain if any unnecessary services are running.
Services on domain controllers must be controlled from a central location. Which services start automatically and which administrators have permission to stop and start services must be centrally managed.
The IIS server must be routinely examined for missing IIS Security patches.
Users of the Web site and the files they download must be tracked. This data must be stored in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
Vendors and consultants who use Windows 95 or Windows 98 client computers must have the Active Directory Client Extensions software installed to be able to authenticate to domain controllers on the company’s network.
Questions
1. You need to design a certificate distribution method that meets the requirements of the chief security officer.
Your solution must require the minimum amount of user effort. What should you do?
To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area, and arrange them in the appropriate order.

Answer:

2. You need to design a method to configure the servers in the development department to meet the requirements of the chief information officer. What should you do?
A. Use error reporting on all servers in the development department to report errors for a custom application.
B. Configure all servers in the development department so that they do not require the
CTRL+ALT+DELETE keys be pressed in order to log on interactively to the server.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the development department’s Servers OU.
Configure the GPO with an interactive logon policy to display a message for users who attempt to log on.
D. Configure the screen saver on all servers in the development department to require a password.
Answer: C

3. You need to design a method to log changes that are made to servers and domain controllers. You also need to track when administrators modify local security account manager objects on servers. What should you do?
A. Enable failure audit for privilege use and object access on all servers and domain controllers.
B. Enable success audit for policy change and account management on all servers and domain controllers.
C. Enable success audit for process tracking and logon events on all servers and domain controllers.
D. Enable failure audit for system events and directory service access on all servers and domain controllers.
Answer: B

4. You need to design a strategy to ensure that all servers are in compliance with the business requirements for maintaining security patches. What should you do?
A. Log on to a domain controller and run the Resultant Set of Policy wizard in planning mode on the domain.
B. Log on to each server and run Security Configuration and Analysis to analyze the security settings by using a custom security template.
C. Create a logon script to run the secedit command to analyze all servers in the domain.
D. Run the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) on a server to scan for Windows vulnerabilities on all servers in the domain.
Answer: D

5. You need to design a method to monitor the security configuration of the IIS server to meet the requirements in the written security policy. What should you do?
A. Log on to a domain controller and run the Resultant Set of Policy wizard in planning mode on the IIS server computer account.
B. Run the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) on the IIS server and scan for vulnerabilities in Windows and IIS checks.
C. Run Security Configuration and Analysis to analyze the IIS server’s security settings by using a custom security template.
D. On the IIS server, run the gpresult command from a command prompt and analyze the output.
Answer: B

6. You need to design a monitoring strategy to meet business requirements for data on servers in the production department. What should you do?
A. Use Microsoft Baseline Security and 70-298 dumps Analyzer (MBSA) to scan for Windows vulnerabilities on all servers in the production department.
B. Run Security and Configuration Analysis to analyze the security settings of all servers in the production
department.
C. Enable auditing for data on each server in the production department. Run System Monitor on all servers in the production department to create a counter log that tracks activity for the Objects performance object.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables auditing for object access and link it to the product department’s Servers OU. Enable auditing for data on each server in the production department.
Answer: D

7. You need to design a method to implement account policies that meets the requirements in the written security policy. What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the New York OU, to the Denver OU, and to the Dallas OU. Configure the GPO with the required account policy settings.
B. On all computers in the domain, configure the Local Security Policy with the required account policy settings.
C. Configure the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) with the required account policy settings.
D. Configure the Default Domain Controllers Policy Group Policy object (GPO) with the required account policy settings.
Answer: C

8. You need to design a method to protect traffic on the wireless networks. Your solution must meet the requirements of the chief security officer. What should you do?
A. Configure the wireless access points in Denver and in Dallas to filter unauthorized Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
B. Configure the wireless network connection properties for all computers in Denver and in Dallas to use the same network name that the wireless access points use.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Denver OU and to the Dallas OU. Create a wireless network policy and configure it to use Windows to configure wireless network settings for the Denver and the Dallas networks.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Denver OU and to the Dallas OU. Create a wireless network policy and enable data encryption and dynamic key assignment for the Denver and the Dallas networks.
Answer: D

9. You need to design a strategy to log access to the company Web site. What should you do?
A. Enable logging on the company Web site and select the NCSA Common Log File Format. Store the log files on a SQL Server computer.
B. Use System Monitor to create a counter log that captures network traffic to the Web server by using the
Web Service object. Store the log files on a SQL Server computer.
C. Run Network Monitor on the Web server. Create a capture filter for the SNA protocol and save the results to a capture file. Store the capture file on a SQL Server computer.
D. Enable logging on the company Web site and select ODBC Logging. Configure the ODBC logging options by using a nonadministrative SQL account.
Answer: D

10. You need to design a method to deploy security configuration settings to servers. What should you do?
A. Run the Resultant Set of Policy wizard with a Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filter on each department’s Server OU.
B. Log on to each server and use local policy to configure and manage the security settings.
C. Create a custom security template. Log on to a domain controller and run the secedit command to import the security template.
D. Create a custom security template. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and import the security template. Link the GPO to each department’s Server OU.
Answer: D

11. You need to design a group membership strategy for the EditorialAdmins group. What should you do?
A. Move the EditorialAdmins group to the 70-298 study guide Servers OU in the editorial department.
B. Move the members of the EditorialAdmins group to the Editorial OU.
C. Move the members of the EditorialAdmins group to the New York OU.
D. Move the EditorialAdmins group to the New York OU.
Answer: D

12. You need to design a method to enable remote encryption on Server5. What should you do?
A. Configure the editors’ user account properties to enable Store password using reversible encryption.
B. Configure the editors’ user account properties to enable Use DES encryption types for this account.
C. Configure the Local Security Policy on Server5 to enable the System cryptography: Use FIPS compliant algorithms for encryption, hashing, and signing security policy.
D. Configure the Server5 computer account properties to enable Trust computer for delegation. Answer: D